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Archives of the TeradataForumMessage Posted: Sun, 05 Jun 2005 @ 09:58:40 GMT
I think the best why of explaining this is with an example. Say you have DB1 & DB2 and you want to create view in DB2 which view references the base table in DB1. In order this to work than DB2 must have with grant option on DB1. The same philosophy applies if you have stored procedures, triggers or macros, every time when references is made to the object which lives in another database than access is required between databases. The usual error message which comes in above case is quite misleading. Hope the above shed some light. IvanH
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